Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef
No. Ball never had FC status.
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Bear with this rookie.
In the OP, we have an offensive player dribbling the ball at the center line but does not have the ball and both feet in the FC. However, the defender is in the FC and he touches the ball which, if I'm understanding correctly, gave the ball FC status. Correct? The ball then is last touched by the offensive player who is the first to touch it in the BC, thus, a violation.
If I am correct on my understanding, how is that different from the scenario I presented? The ball did not have FC status since a foot was still in the BC.
What am I not following?