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Old Fri Nov 14, 2008, 03:38pm
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Adam Adam is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2003
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Spence View Post
Gotcha. So there was no FC status until the ball was touched by B1 who was in the FC.?
Exactly.

Now, the rule says A has to be the first to touch the ball "after" it regains BC status. The case play seems to treat A1 retouching the ball as both giving it BC status and touching it "after." Most here disagree that he can do both simultaneously.

The Fed case ruling would be different if the ball bounced in the BC before A1 touches it. Many here think this is stupid.
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