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Now will either you or jdw please provide a rule reference to call the player control foul like I have provided? Thanks. ![]() ****EDITED TO ADD THE FOLLOWING THIS IS NOT WHAT I BELIEVE BUT...****In fact, if you read it this way (I DON'T), BY rule in order for the player to be entitled to a spot, then he has to be considered guarding somebody since that is where it falls in the rule book! If a player is guarding someone, then they have to have LGP. LGP can't be established or maintained if the player is OOB. That could be an argument for rwest's point of view on this as well.****EDITED TO ADD THE PREVIOUSTHAT IS NOT WHAT I BELIEVE BUT...**** Last edited by Texref; Fri Oct 31, 2008 at 02:19pm. |
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How's that? |
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Definition of charge says that the player had to legally be in front of the defender. See previous posts, with rules included, as to why the defender in the OP is not legally w/in the path of the offense.
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Sure - 4-19-6
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The question arose as to whether a stationary defender, can still draw the charge, even if they have a foot on the line (OOB status). Not including this particular play, I believe we can all agree that, in certain situations, a player can be called for a player-control foul against a defender that does not have LGP, correct?
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A1 driving to the basket B1 is running parralell to A1 haveing never establish LGP, A1 changes direction toward B1 and lowers shoulder to initiate contact and go through B1 to get to the basket. PC foul and we go the other way.
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Perhaps a better example would A1 driving to the basket, B2 is guarding A2 on the post, and B2's back is to A1. As A1 drives past B2, A1 gives a little forearm to B2's back to creat a little more space. (Snaqs has more examples.) Anyway, we agree the offense can commit a player-control foul against a defender who does not have LGP. This leads us back to the question of the stationary defender with the foot on the line. My whole point is the case play tells us the defender does not have LGP, due to the foot being on the line. It does not say the defender has "illegal position", and it does not say the defender is responsible for all contact because they are OOB. There have been no specific rules citations to back up any of those comments. So, all other things being equal, my point (and a couple others here), say there can be a situation where A1 can be called for the player-control foul, even though B1's foot is on the line OOB. Do you follow the logic?
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New example to illustrate the point
Here is a new twist to demonstrate the point...
For those that insist the foul is on the player who is OOB just because they are OOB, what is your call if they are both OOB? Example: A1 loses the ball, an interrupted dribble, just before stepping on the line running into a stationary and OOB B1.
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such as just bowling B1 over becuase he was there, pushing off with the arm, and several others that have probably been mentioned in this thread. it is possible that you could call a PC foul here,
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