Reversing my own call

[Rizzo21]

If I may, another situation in this game had to do with the timeline but not reversing a call.

A1 dribbles the ball up to midcourt and stops on the timeline with one foot straddling the line and one foot still in the backcourt. He PASSES to A2 whom I judged to receive the pass pretty much in the same position, foot on the timeline and one foot in backcourt. I realize if he had jumped from the frontcourt, received the pass then landed in that position it would have been over-and-back. However, in the situation described, I had no-call. The crowd of team B certainly had a call but I didn't. I believe (if my judgment was correct about the pass receiver) I had the right call. Any comments?

If I was correct, I also don't believe that the call changes if the position of the backcourt foot (for A1 or A2) was any different (backcourt or frontcourt). I'm open to correction though.

If that's what your judgement was, then it was the right call. Ignore the crowd

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by PYRef

If that's what your judgement was, then it was the right call. Ignore the crowd

Exactly. Touching the division line puts the player in backcourt. Passing to another player touching the division line is really the same situation as a player deep in backcourt passing to a teammate deep in backcourt. Don't let the touching of the division line cloud the issue.

[jdw3018]

Originally Posted by Rizzo21

If I may, another situation in this game had to do with the timeline but not reversing a call.

A1 dribbles the ball up to midcourt and stops on the timeline with one foot straddling the line and one foot still in the backcourt. He PASSES to A2 whom I judged to receive the pass pretty much in the same position, foot on the timeline and one foot in backcourt. I realize if he had jumped from the frontcourt, received the pass then landed in that position it would have been over-and-back. However, in the situation described, I had no-call. The crowd of team B certainly had a call but I didn't. I believe (if my judgment was correct about the pass receiver) I had the right call. Any comments?

If I was correct, I also don't believe that the call changes if the position of the backcourt foot (for A1 or A2) was any different (backcourt or frontcourt). I'm open to correction though.

A1 has backcourt status, and A2 has backcourt status, so no violation.

Except, I've never really thought about this before, but if the pass was a bounce-pass that bounced completely in the frontcourt, then the ball would have frontcourt status and A2 catching the ball would be a violation.

At least, I think.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Rizzo21

If I may, another situation in this game had to do with the timeline but not reversing a call.

A1 dribbles the ball up to midcourt and stops on the timeline with one foot straddling the line and one foot still in the backcourt. He PASSES to A2 whom I judged to receive the pass pretty much in the same position, foot on the timeline and one foot in backcourt. I realize if he had jumped from the frontcourt, received the pass then landed in that position it would have been over-and-back. However, in the situation described, I had no-call. The crowd of team B certainly had a call but I didn't. I believe (if my judgment was correct about the pass receiver) I had the right call. Any comments?

If I was correct, I also don't believe that the call changes if the position of the backcourt foot (for A1 or A2) was any different (backcourt or frontcourt). I'm open to correction though.

A pass from one player with one or both feet in backcourt to another player with one or both feet in backcourt. Seems like a pretty simple no-call to me.