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A1 is awarded 2 FTs. A time-out is then granted. After the time-out, the official is ready to administer the FT, but A1 is not in the semi-circle. The official correctly places the ball on the floor inside the semi-circle. At this point, two things are true: 1) The ball is at the disposal of A1 2) A1 cannot go get the ball without violating. Seems to me your point is not supported by the rules. JMHO. __________________________________________________ _________ Edit: Jeez, Dan_ref beat me by about 3 minutes. |
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From what I have read and heard arguments from, I'm going to have to go with, that this was a legal play by the officials. All because of the word OR in the rule! It's says in possession OR at the disposal, so I'm going to give the time out, but I do agree I would have to try and get a whistle before the timeout is asked for to get the ball back to the shooter and reset the free throw!
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DETERMINATION ALL BUT ERASES THE THIN LINE BETWEEN THE IMPOSSIBLE AND THE POSSIBLE! |
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You should ask: Can a FT who refuses to accept the ball from the administering official later pick it up without violating after the official places it on the floor at the FT line? The answer is yes, and that's a better parallel to what we have here. |
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Whatever other point you'd like to make, I'm willing to listen; but the play I described for you is exactly on point and shows your original statement to be false. |
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9-11-01 http://www.fallenheroesfund.org/fallenheroes/index.php http://www.carydufour.com/marinemoms...llowribbon.jpg |
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I still don't agree that your RRP example is relevant or that it makes my earlier statement false.
Dan asked me, "By what rule is the ball no longer at the disposal in this sitch?" The logic of my response was that the ball is no longer at the disposal of the FT shooter because he had the ball, but now it is gone. That seems pretty simple. In your RPP example, the FT shooter was never allowed to have the ball in first place, thus it is impossible to argue that the ball, while still live, will at sometime no longer be at his disposal. It's just not the same. Furthermore, neither you nor Dan has responded to my point that the RPP creates special circumstances during a game of basketball during which some of the normal rules are suspended. The example I gave dealt with technical fouls. Therefore, using a RPP situation to argue by analogy is not appropriate. What happens under RPP is quite different. |
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But of course they didn't, and now you're making it up as you go along. In fact, in the associated case play they want us to blow the whistle to prevent a violation. How can we have a violation if the FT has not ended yet the ball is not at the disposal?
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