Timeout during free throw?????
 

Seen for the first time ever last night.
Player A1 at the line bouncing ball getting ready to attempt free throw, A1 bounces it off of his foot, ball goes rolling back towards the basket, A1 looks at official and calls time out, Time out granted, came back out shot free throw! Is that how this should of worked?

As soon as it came off his foot I would've blown my whistle and readminister, and hopefully before he called timeout. However, the ball was at the disposal of the free thow shooter (since he caught it..:D ) and he can call the timeout.

No, the official should have blown his whistle and re-set the free throw with no violation. Case book play 9.1.1.

Yes.......

OK - let's take a poll. How many of you agree that the player can call a timeout here? :confused:

The Casebook play that JR cited should have been followed. The ball is no longer at the disposal of the FT shooter at this time, therefore he is not permitted to request and be granted a time-out. The official did not handle it correctly.

I'll say "no".

Don't want to risk the <b>Wrath of Padgett</b>.:D

So is the ball live or dead?

I see nothing which has made the ball become dead. It was placed at the disposal of the FT shooter, at which time it became live.

The FT shooter clearly could have requested a TO while he had the ball, since he has player control, however once he loses it the conditions of 5-8-3 aren't met. Thus no TO request should be granted.

Well let's see...the ball was at the disposal of the FT shooter by 8-1. And 5-8-3a says we can grant a TO request when the ball is at the disposal of a player. By what rule is the ball no longer at the disposal in this sitch?

That was my point as well Dan. If we put the ball down at the spot to resume play on a throw in, the ball is at the disposal, the ball is live and the offensive team can call a timeout without somebody actually coming to get the ball. So because the player doesn't have the ball in his hands for the free throw in this sitch, it still at his disposal.

There's no longer player control, but does that matter to this situation?

The ball is no longer at his disposal because it is somewhere where he cannot go to get it. In other words it is not like a throw-in placed on the floor. In that case the ball is somewhere where a player from the team may legally get it. In this case the player clearly cannot go get the ball.

Time-out occurs and the clock, if running, shall be stopped when an official:
ART. 3 . . . Grants a player's/head coach's oral or visual request for a time-out, such request being granted only when:

a. The ball is in control or at the disposal of a player of his/her team.
b. The ball is dead, unless replacement of a disqualified, or injured player(s), or a player directed to leave the game is pending, and a substitute(s) is available and required.

Well, the way the rule is worded, it certainly appears that as long as the ball is at the thrower's disposal, he should still be granted the timeout.

One question that I don't think is answered anywhere is when does a ball cease being at a player's disposal? I think the logical answer is that it ceases being at a player's disposal after it has left the player's control.

Thoughts?

Where does it say disposal 'ends' when the ball is somehwhere the player can't get it?

btw, in the resuming play scenario the FTer can't legally get the ball.

How is this play different?