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Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Consider a completley different situation, but one that is covered clearly by the rules and cases.
A1 is awarded 2 FTs. A time-out is then granted. After the time-out, the official is ready to administer the FT, but A1 is not in the semi-circle. The official correctly places the ball on the floor inside the semi-circle. At this point, two things are true:
1) The ball is at the disposal of A1
2) A1 cannot go get the ball without violating.
Seems to me your point is not supported by the rules. JMHO.
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Edit: Jeez, Dan_ref beat me by about 3 minutes.  |
Since RPP isn't in effect in this case, it doesn't matter. Whether the FT can enter the semi circle and get a ball put there WHEN HE WASN'T IN THERE isn't relevant to this situation. So we don't need to discuss RPP, which is a specific procedure with its own quirks. For example, when RPP is not in effect one would call an immediate technical foul on a player for not being in the semi circle. RPP changes the rules.
You should ask:
Can a FT who refuses to accept the ball from the administering official later pick it up without violating after the official places it on the floor at the FT line? The answer is yes, and that's a better parallel to what we have here.