Signaling Delayed FT Violation

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by PYRef

If I'm not mistaken, he 10 second free throw count should not be a visible count.

You're mistaken. The 10-second count is a visible wrist flick. 240(f) on p.41 of the NFHS Officials Manual.

[26 Year Gap]

Most of the time, the defense violates AFTER the FT release, so you could use the arm furthest from the hoop to signal the delayed violation. If it happens before the release, why couldn't you just stop the count on the release and go right into the delayed violation signal with the same arm?

[HawkeyeCubP]

Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap

Most of the time, the defense violates AFTER the FT release, so you could use the arm furthest from the hoop to signal the delayed violation. If it happens before the release, why couldn't you just stop the count on the release and go right into the delayed violation signal with the same arm?

Because, theoretically, you could still have a violation on the shooter for violating the 10-second rule, in which case you'd penalize both violations. (9-1-Penalties-4-b.)

[Snake~eyes]

Personally, I'd just stop counting, never really thought about it. Anyways I don't really count to begin with...

[jmaellis]

Originally Posted by HawkeyeCubP

Because, theoretically, you could still have a violation on the shooter for violating the 10-second rule, in which case you'd penalize both violations. (9-1-Penalties-4-b.)

Is it true that a lane violation committed by a player on the non-shooting team (9-1-9) isn't a violation until the ball leaves the thrower's hands? If so, if the thrower commits a 10 second violation (9-1-3) that violation causes the ball to become dead so there would not be a dual violation/penalty.

??

[HawkeyeCubP]

Originally Posted by jmaellis

Is it true that a lane violation committed by a player on the non-shooting team (9-1-9) isn't a violation until the ball leaves the thrower's hands? If so, if the thrower commits a 10 second violation (9-1-3) that violation causes the ball to become dead so there would not be a dual violation/penalty.

??

An opponent of the shooter violating a free-throw provision/requirement/rule is a violation as soon as it occurs, provided the ball is at the shooter's disposal. If the free throw is made, the violation is ignored. - Hence the delayed dead ball signal as soon as the violation occurs - not when the ball is released for the free throw (if the one precedes the other).

[Ignats75]

I would signal with my hand towards the backcourt. I would silently continue the count with my nearer hand. If the shooter violates, he gets a re-shoot due to the delayed violation.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by jmaellis

Is it true that a lane violation committed by a player on the non-shooting team (9-1-9) isn't a violation until the ball leaves the thrower's hands? If so, if the thrower commits a 10 second violation (9-1-3) that violation causes the ball to become dead so there would not be a dual violation/penalty.

??

No to both questions. It's a violation as soon as it happens, but the enforcement is delayed. THe play you describe in the second question is a double violation.

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

You're mistaken. The 10-second count is a visible wrist flick. 240(f) on p.41 of the NFHS Officials Manual.

I stand corrected.