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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Nov 30, 2006, 10:40am
Lighten up, Francis.
 
Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 4,709
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
That's cool. But is that what the original poster was referring to, Carnac?
Well, I didn't think so. Because he asked if it was a violation or T. I can't imagine anyone might think that the penalty for 7.1.1D(a) would be a T. Seemed more reasonable that he was asking about leaving the court to go around a screen.

But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Thu Nov 30, 2006, 10:48am
In Memoriam
 
Join Date: Aug 2001
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1

But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.
Not if the answer is "legal play" and the OP didn't know that.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Thu Nov 30, 2006, 11:04am
Lighten up, Francis.
 
Join Date: Nov 2006
Posts: 4,709
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Quote:
Originally Posted by me
But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.
Not if the answer is "legal play" and the OP didn't know that.
Does touching the ball have anything to do with whether the play is legal or illegal?
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Thu Nov 30, 2006, 10:56am
Courageous When Prudent
 
Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Hampton Roads, VA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Scrapper1
But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.
Would it be relevant if rule 9-3 Note was the scenario in question?
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