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Thu Nov 11, 1999, 12:03pm
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I believe this to be a backcourt violation. (I think!! ;-) talk about sitting on the fence!!)
The ball has frontcourt status, and A2 has backcourt status. Is it not the same prinicple as inbounds/out of bounds. In the same scenario, if B1 batted the ball toward a boundry line, and A2 ran out of bounds and caught the ball in the air, A2 caused it to be out of bounds. In the backcourt scenario, isn't A2 causing the ball to obtain backcourt status by touching it? If he lets it bounce first, then B1 has caused the ball to go backcourt. If A2 lets the ball bounce (backcourt or out of bounds) prior to touching, he's OK in both cases. Similiar situation during a throw-in. A1, from out of bounds makes a throw-in that B1 deflects right back at A1. If A1 touches the ball while still out of bounds, violation on A, ball to B. If he lets it hit the ground first, ball back to Team A. Hey, I could be wrong. My first inclination was that it was NOT a violation. DK, very WishyWashy at Work.... 
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