Errant Pass

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

I can't disagree with so cal lurker because I know more about Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle than I know about NBA rules.

But I would still like to see how the NBA defines a self-pass?

Steph Curry receives an inbound pass while all alone while deep in his backcourt. He catches the inbound pass with two hands and then turns around, pivoting without moving, or lifting, his pivot foot, and then immediately, with those same two hands, tosses the ball into the air, with the ball striking the court several feet in front of him, and he allows the ball to bounce a few times on the court. He then sees that he's wide open, catches up to the ball, catches it with two hands, lifts both feet, obviously including his pivot foot, and attempts a seventy-five foot jump shot, that hits nothing but net.

NBA expects its officials to use common sense. They know whether or not a player is attempting to pass to a teammate as opposed to simply throwing the ball in front of themselves to start a dribble. Officials who come up with a bunch a hypothetical what-ifs don't even make it into the room.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Raymond

NBA expects its officials to use common sense.

As do our high school, and college assigners. Even if there is an "intent and purpose" clause in the NBA rulebook, like there is in the high school rulebook (not sure about college) there must be a definition of self-pass in the NBA rulebook. How's it defined? What's the violation? Travel? Illegal dribble? Self-pass? Something else?

Originally Posted by Raymond

... hypothetical what-ifs ...

Hypothetical what-ifs and extreme examples gauge the clarity and comprehensiveness of the written rules. We see this all the time here on the Forum, especially in regard to testing the limits of high school rules (where we can't even get a definition of "opponent" in regard to distracting a free thrower).

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

As do our high school, and college assigners. Even if there is an "intent and purpose" clause in the NBA rulebook, like there is in the high school rulebook (not sure about college) there must be a definition of self-pass in the NBA rulebook. How's it defined? What's the violation? Travel? Illegal dribble? Self-pass? Something else?



Hypothetical what-ifs and extreme examples gauge the clarity and comprehensiveness of the written rules. We see this all the time here on the Forum, especially in regard to testing the limits of high school rules (where we can't even get a definition of "opponent" in regard to distracting a free thrower).

As usual, you miss the point. You commented about not knowing NBA rules. My point is there is a "common sense, know it when you see it, we're not going to debate every miniscule possible detail" aspect to NBA rules enforcement that you could never align with.

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[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Raymond

... we're not going to debate every minuscule possible detail aspect to NBA rules enforcement

We often do this for high school rules, and occasionally for college rules, why not rarely for NBA rules? Because few if any Forum members officiate professional level games? We do have a few members with some knowledge of NBA rules (maybe so cal lurker, plus a Forum member who's two sons officiate at the professional level).

The concept of (especially high school) "self passes" pops up occasionally here on the Forum. Often answered by comments like, "No such thing by NFHS definition" (citing 4-31: A pass is movement of the ball caused by a player who throws, bats or rolls the ball to another player), often ending the discussion so we often never get to study the legality of something that doesn't even truly exist according to the NFHS.

Apparently the NBA does broach the concept of self passes (according to so cal lurker). That why I wanted to extrapolate to NBA rules involving self passes to see what's going on two gigantic levels above my pay grade. How does the NBA "handle" self-passes? What's the violation? Travel? Illegal dribble? Self-pass? Something else? Why do they broach the term while the NFHS denies its existence?

Also, I like the term self pass, it's easily understandable, even if it doesn't exist according NFHS rules. Certainly no harm in using self pass as a generic term to describe a certain act, or situation? Right?

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Raymond

... there is a "common sense, know it when you see it ... I don't need to know the verbiage in the rule book.