Shooting vs. passing after foul

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by BigCat

We have a player going in for wide open layup, 5 does something, we have a whistle and then, most importantly, we have a player's body react in an unnatural way. Then he dumps to a smaller player in the lane. We weren't there but i think by those facts something clearly happened. The question for me is "did the foul cause the dump?" If the answer is yes i will give him two. It isn't "In spite of the foul COULD he still have shot the ball?" His body reaction immediately after whistle matters a lot to me here.

If it was a wide open layup, who was he fouled? I see nothing in the play that suggest he did not assume there was someone defending him. Actually I have seen players move their own body in an unnatural way to help cause contact with a defender and near the basket.

I did not say that he was not fouled at all, just stated that it was unclear who fouled him or to what extent. And I do not see many players dump the ball because they are fouled. Usually they act like they were "hit" more or act like they had to be fouled. That is not what took place here.

And again, this is why it is a judgment call. You act like this makes since and I rarely see a player pass a ball that they did not appear to be trying to do. And right or wrong, there are coaches that teach their players how to act when fouled. I have heard it from coaches when they are fouled out loud. Again this is where experience and judgment intersect.

Peace