Backcourt Violation?

[UNIgiantslayers]

Originally Posted by Spence

ART. 1 . . . A player shall not be the first to touch the ball after it has been in team control in the
frontcourt, if he/she or a teammate last touched or was touched by the ball in the frontcourt before
it went to the backcourt.

At what point is the ball in the backcourt in my example? When it's caught by A1 , correct? So the question is regarding the ball not touching the BC. It's not in the BC until it's caught by A1. I'm sure there was an old case play on this but can't find it.

I think THIS should answer your question, no? If B is the last to touch it, wouldn't it make it a legal touch for A to then touch it in BC? BC is the weakest of my rules knowledge, so I'm just asking here.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by UNIgiantslayers

I think THIS should answer your question, no? If B is the last to touch it, wouldn't it make it a legal touch for A to then touch it in BC? BC is the weakest of my rules knowledge, so I'm just asking here.

You ignored the question I asked.

If the ball never touched the backcourt i.e. the floor then who was the last to touch it when it had FC status?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Spence

You ignored the question I asked.

If the ball never touched the backcourt i.e. the floor then who was the last to touch it when it had FC status?

That would be B, because as soon as A caught it, it gained BC status. The last to touch before it went to the BC was B.

[UNIgiantslayers]

Originally Posted by Spence

You ignored the question I asked.

If the ball never touched the backcourt i.e. the floor then who was the last to touch it when it had FC status?

I missed the point of your question, and skipped over the fact that the ball had not obtained backcourt status. Let me ask you this:
If A1 in BC passes to A2 in FC, but the ball does not bounce, does the ball have FC status?

[Spence]

Originally Posted by UNIgiantslayers

I missed the point of your question, and skipped over the fact that the ball had not obtained backcourt status. Let me ask you this:
If A1 in BC passes to A2 in FC, but the ball does not bounce, does the ball have FC status?

Yes.

[UNIgiantslayers]

Originally Posted by Spence

Yes.

So B1 is the last to touch it while it has FC status before A1 gathers the ball in the BC, giving the ball BC status.

ART. 1 . . . A player shall not be the first to touch the ball after it has been in team control in the
frontcourt, if he/she or a teammate last touched or was touched by the ball in the frontcourt before
it went to the backcourt.

[Amesman]

Look at it another way: If B1 bounces a ball over an OOB line and A1 catches it before it lands, is the ball already OOB or only when A1 catches it?

[BigCat]

Originally Posted by Spence

You ignored the question I asked.

If the ball never touched the backcourt i.e. the floor then who was the last to touch it when it had FC status?

The old case play was something like this: A1 is in control in his BC passes the ball and B1 standing in FC bats ball out of air back to A1. They said it was a violation because ball had FC status when A1 caught it so he was last to touch and also had back court status because he was standing in BC. Simultaneously.

As Adam said, the rule says BEFORE. At most, we have the ball simultaneously in FC and BC when A1 touches it. The rule says player can't be first to touch ball after it been in team control in FC if she or teammate last touched ball in FC BEFORE it went to BC. This is simultaneous, not before. i don't have a violation.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by BigCat

The old case play was something like this: A1 is in control in his BC passes the ball and B1 standing in FC bats ball out of air back to A1. They said it was a violation because ball had FC status when A1 caught it so he was last to touch and also had back court status because he was standing in BC. Simultaneously.

As Adam said, the rule says BEFORE. At most, we have the ball simultaneously in FC and BC when A1 touches it. The rule says player can't be first to touch ball after it been in team control in FC if she or teammate last touched ball in FC BEFORE it went to BC. This is simultaneous, not before. i don't have a violation.

The case play you cite is not the one I am recalling.

[BigCat]

Originally Posted by Spence

The case play you cite is not the one I am recalling.

I don't recall your play. Principles the same.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by BigCat

I don't recall your play. Principles the same.

I'll pull out the old case books when I get home to see if I can find it.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Spence

I'll pull out the old case books when I get home to see if I can find it.

You won't find it in any Case Book. It was an online interp issued in the 2007-08 season. I agree with Camron and others here that the author of this interp didn't understand the text of the actual rule and issued an incorrect ruling.

From the 2007-08 NFHS Basketball Interpretations:

SITUATION 10: A1, in the team's frontcourt, passes to A2, also in the team's frontcourt. B1 deflects the ball toward Team A's backcourt. The ball bounces only in Team A's frontcourt before crossing the division line. While the ball is still in the air over Team A's backcourt, but never having touched in Team A's backcourt, A2 gains possession of the ball while standing in Team A's backcourt. RULING: Backcourt violation on Team A. Team A was still in team control and caused the ball to have backcourt status. Had A2 permitted the ball to bounce in the backcourt after having been deflected by B1, there would have been no backcourt violation. (4-4-1; 4-4-3; 9-9-1)