Americian Legion question

[nopachunts]

Was the batted ball fair or foul when it touched the runner on 1B? It makes a difference in how you rule.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by nopachunts

Was the batted ball fair or foul when it touched the runner on 1B? It makes a difference in how you rule.

If you're asking abut the runner it doesn't matter for him. It does for the batter.

If it's fair the runner is not out by rule. Batter out.

If it's foul the runner wasn't hit by a fair ball so he's not out by rule. Foul ball.

If you're thinking about the runner interfering with a fielder he's touching his base so any interference would have to be intentional. None was mentioned in the OP.

[BoomerSooner]

Would anyone have anything different if the first baseman completely misplayed the ball charged in and it was a good 10-15 feet in front of the bag when it bounced off the runners helmet and no other defender has tried to move into position to field the ball?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by BoomerSooner

Would anyone have anything different if the first baseman completely misplayed the ball charged in and it was a good 10-15 feet in front of the bag when it bounced off the runners helmet and no other defender has tried to move into position to field the ball?

No. .

[BoomerSooner]

I haven't made up my mind one way or the other on this yet, so please help me if I've missed something, but what about 5.06 (OBR 2015 format) regarding Dead Balls:

"If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, no
other infielder has a chance to make a play on the
ball and the ball touches a runner immediately
behind the infielder that the ball went through, or
by, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not
declare the runner out.

If you judge the distance of 10-15 feet in front of the base to be enough to disqualify the "immediately behind" provision of this rule, there no need to discuss this rule reference any further. I guess my issue is that I don't recall the rule reference making a runner hit by an infield fly while touching his base an immediate dead ball situation (except for intentional interference). I know so many aspects of a runner being hit by a batted ball while touching his base get messed up, so I'm wondering if I missed something here.

[BoomerSooner]

My follow-up to that and where my mind was going was that if it remains a live ball, the batter is still out for the infield fly, but since the ball deflected into DBT, all runners should advance 2 bases.

[Rich Ives]

Go back and read Bob Jenkins post. The ball is dead. The exception is that the runner is not out.

The ball did not pass an infielder in the OBR baseball sense. Passing means through or within reach of the fielder. Neither happened in your play.