Americian Legion question

[Gmoore]

Bases loaded 1 out

Batter hits high pop up near first base umpire declares IFR if fair --runner is standing on the base the ball comes down hits runners helment and bounces into DBT (over fence) what you have?

[DG]

Originally Posted by Gmoore

Bases loaded 1 out

Batter hits high pop up near first base umpire declares IFR if fair --runner is standing on the base the ball comes down hits runners helment and bounces into DBT (over fence) what you have?

Batter out, runner not, dead ball as soon as it hits him. If he is off the base when it hits him, batter out, runner out, dead ball. Assuming it was fair when it hit him.

[JJ]

Same interp as Pro (what Legion uses as a rule set with a few modifications).

JJ

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by DG

Batter out, runner not, dead ball as soon as it hits him. If he is off the base when it hits him, batter out, runner out, dead ball. Assuming it was fair when it hit him.

Here's the rule supporting the answer:

(7) He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball
has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and
no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners
forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching
his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out,
although the batter is out;

[nopachunts]

Was the batted ball fair or foul when it touched the runner on 1B? It makes a difference in how you rule.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by nopachunts

Was the batted ball fair or foul when it touched the runner on 1B? It makes a difference in how you rule.

If you're asking abut the runner it doesn't matter for him. It does for the batter.

If it's fair the runner is not out by rule. Batter out.

If it's foul the runner wasn't hit by a fair ball so he's not out by rule. Foul ball.

If you're thinking about the runner interfering with a fielder he's touching his base so any interference would have to be intentional. None was mentioned in the OP.

[BoomerSooner]

Would anyone have anything different if the first baseman completely misplayed the ball charged in and it was a good 10-15 feet in front of the bag when it bounced off the runners helmet and no other defender has tried to move into position to field the ball?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by BoomerSooner

Would anyone have anything different if the first baseman completely misplayed the ball charged in and it was a good 10-15 feet in front of the bag when it bounced off the runners helmet and no other defender has tried to move into position to field the ball?

No. .

[BoomerSooner]

I haven't made up my mind one way or the other on this yet, so please help me if I've missed something, but what about 5.06 (OBR 2015 format) regarding Dead Balls:

"If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, no
other infielder has a chance to make a play on the
ball and the ball touches a runner immediately
behind the infielder that the ball went through, or
by, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not
declare the runner out.

If you judge the distance of 10-15 feet in front of the base to be enough to disqualify the "immediately behind" provision of this rule, there no need to discuss this rule reference any further. I guess my issue is that I don't recall the rule reference making a runner hit by an infield fly while touching his base an immediate dead ball situation (except for intentional interference). I know so many aspects of a runner being hit by a batted ball while touching his base get messed up, so I'm wondering if I missed something here.