I haven't made up my mind one way or the other on this yet, so please help me if I've missed something, but what about 5.06 (OBR 2015 format) regarding Dead Balls:
"If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, no
other infielder has a chance to make a play on the
ball and the ball touches a runner immediately
behind the infielder that the ball went through, or
by, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not
declare the runner out.
If you judge the distance of 10-15 feet in front of the base to be enough to disqualify the "immediately behind" provision of this rule, there no need to discuss this rule reference any further. I guess my issue is that I don't recall the rule reference making a runner hit by an infield fly while touching his base an immediate dead ball situation (except for intentional interference). I know so many aspects of a runner being hit by a batted ball while touching his base get messed up, so I'm wondering if I missed something here.