BOT question

[rbmartin]

In each case, does R2 return to second base if:
a) He runs to third on a third strike wild pitch? NO
b) He runs to third on a ball four wild pitch? NO (unless 1st base was occupied)
c) He steals third on ball four, not wild? NO (unless 1st base was occupied)

Would it make any difference in cases b or c if R2 were on 1B and ran to second on the pitch? Yes. since his advance was technically forced due to the batter becoming a runner, his advance would be nullified upon appeal.

MLB 6.07(b) When an improper batter becomes a runner or is put out, and the defensive team appeals to the umpire before the first pitch to the next batter of either team, or before any play or attempted play, the umpire shall (1) declare the proper batter out; and (2) nullify any advance or score made because of a ball batted by the improper batter or because of the improper batter’s advance to first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise.
NOTE: If a runner advances, while the improper batter is at bat, on a stolen base, balk, wild pitch or passed ball, such advance is legal.

[bsaucer]

Originally Posted by rbmartin

Would it make any difference in cases b or c if R2 were on 1B and ran to second on the pitch? Yes. since his advance was technically forced due to the batter becoming a runner, his advance would be nullified upon appeal.

Even if he ran on the pitch?

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by bsaucer

Even if he ran on the pitch?

Yes, unless he safely arrived at 2nd before the pitch, he is a forced runner and thus must return to 1st.

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by yawetag

With R1 and no outs, BR would automatically be out on the third strike, so the advance to 2B would not be nullified.

I agree with everything else, though.

Correct. I was referring only to scenarios B & C in which the improper BR recieved a base on balls.