INT on a foul ball

[BSUmp16]

Originally Posted by mbyron

I suppose you could make a case for protecting F3, but it's a weak case. F2 had a better play on the ball.

Here's one of several errors made by the crew: if U1 calls R1 out for INT, why is he allowing play to develop? Why are we throwing the ball across the diamond? Isn't it DEAD on INT?

First, play has to develop to see if ball goes fair or foul, because THAT decision will effect how you enforce the INT. And you can call/holler/demonstrate/signal a runner out all day and some infielder is still going to play it out - as they've been taught. That's not the umpiring crew's fault.

Second, No Way does F2 have a better play. Without the INT, that's F3's play all the way. F3 is coming in for a routine catch using normal effort (which is why U1 initially signals for the IFF); whereas F2 has to either come out far enough to then turn around or make the catch over his shoulder. Protecting F3 is the correct decision; thus no OBS.

Once the ball settles foul, you enforce the INT - R1 out; B/R returns to bat with an extra strike added to the count.