Running Lane - Whose Call?

[Forest Ump]

Originally Posted by Spence

A couple of times this week MLB games had plays where the catcher was throwing to first and the runner , after reaching the running lane, had one foot inside the lane and the first baseman missed the throw.

I would not call RLI on this. He has to be completly outside of the lane before I make that call.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

I would not call RLI on this. He has to be completly outside of the lane before I make that call.

That's flat out incorrect.

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

I would not call RLI on this. He has to be completly outside of the lane before I make that call.

In FED the rule reads: The batter is considered to be outside of the running lane lines if either foot is outside either line.(8-4 art 1 g2).

[Steven Tyler]

Originally Posted by rbmartin

In FED the rule reads: The batter is considered to be outside of the running lane lines if either foot is outside either line.(8-4 art 1 g2).

Personally, I like the FED interp better than OBR when comes to the definition as to the throw.

In OBR, the best thing to do is drill the B/R with the ball the way they want it enforced. In FED, they better be in there or else.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

I would not call RLI on this. He has to be completly outside of the lane before I make that call.

OBR: Rule 6.05(k) Comment: The lines marking the three-foot lane are a part of that lane and a batter-runner is required to have both feet within the three-foot lane or on the lines marking the lane.

[Forest Ump]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

OBR: Rule 6.05(k) Comment: The lines marking the three-foot lane are a part of that lane and a batter-runner is required to have both feet within the three-foot lane or on the lines marking the lane.

Yep, I know what the rule states. I read it before I posted. Do you make this call if he has one foot out and one foot in?

[tcarilli]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

Yep, I know what the rule states. I read it before I posted. Do you make this call if he has one foot out and one foot in?

When anyone is running never are both of his feet on the ground at the same time and BRs on this play are typically running. Given that, the runner will never have both feet within the lane. So the rule can not be enforced literally. So for practical purposes, what matters is whether his last foot was on the ground within the lane or not.

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

Yep, I know what the rule states. I read it before I posted. Do you make this call if he has one foot out and one foot in?

If he interferes, yes.

[DG]

To answer the question, PU.

Whether it was a running lane violation depends on what is meant by F3 missed the catch. Did the ball hit the runner? Did the ball hit F3's glove? In other words, did the runner interfere with F3's ability to catch the ball?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

I would not call RLI on this. He has to be completly outside of the lane before I make that call.

Please bring this up at your next clinic. This is wrong on many levels.

[Forest Ump]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Please bring this up at your next clinic. This is wrong on many levels.

No need to. I screwed the pooch on this one. I was clearly thinking wrong on this one. Glad it's cleared up now (unlike the rest of this thread).

[gordon30307]

Jeff, you're the only person in the world who believes a running lane violation can be called by U1. How many authoritative sources do you need? You're flat out wrong. Sure you could call it but it would be indefensible to any assigner worth his salt and you would be left twisting in the wind.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by gordon30307

Jeff, you're the only person in the world who believes a running lane violation can be called by U1. How many authoritative sources do you need? You're flat out wrong. Sure you could call it but it would be indefensible to any assigner worth his salt and you would be left twisting in the wind.

Bases loaded, infield in, and the batter hits the ball to F6. F6 throws home just slightly too late to get R3, and the PU makes an emphatic Safe call. Then F2 throws to first to make the play on the BR. BR is a few steps from first base, with his left foot outside the lane. U1 clearly sees that F3 couldn't find the throw until it gets past the BR, and F3 reacts too late to make the catch.

U1 is supposed to be silent here?

[tcarilli]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Bases loaded, infield in, and the batter hits the ball to F6. F6 throws home just slightly too late to get R3, and the PU makes an emphatic Safe call. Then F2 throws to first to make the play on the BR. BR is a few steps from first base, with his left foot outside the lane. U1 clearly sees that F3 couldn't find the throw until it gets past the BR, and F3 reacts too late to make the catch.

U1 is supposed to be silent here?

So, why can't the PU also see the RLI in this circumstance?

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by tcarilli

So, why can't the PU also see the RLI in this circumstance?

There could be plenty of reasons why the PU misses it. Just look at the play that took place in the White Sox/Angels game, where the PU made the call at home from 3BLX. He wasn't in an ideal position to see it. Heck, this could be a college- or high school-level game with a four-man crew and he's watching for a FPSR violation as F2's throwing to first. Who knows?

Again, I'm just trying to understand why a RLI violation cannot be called by U1, as gordon30307 states.