Balk or not

[Rich Ives]

2nd base is the occupied base.

3rd base is the unoccupied base with a runner advancing toward it.

Now think it through again.

[clevbrown]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

2nd base is the occupied base.

3rd base is the unoccupied base with a runner advancing toward it.

Now think it through again.

Not sure what you mean Rich. I agree 3rd base is not occupied. My feeling is the pitcher must step towards the base he is throwing to regardless if it is occupied or not. I think the pitcher cannot step toward 2nd, then throw to 3rd.

[yawetag]

Originally Posted by clevbrown

Not sure what you mean Rich. I agree 3rd base is not occupied. My feeling is the pitcher must step towards the base he is throwing to regardless if it is occupied or not. I think the pitcher cannot step toward 2nd, then throw to 3rd.

He stepped toward second and faked a pick-off to second. Legal

He threw to 3B while disengaged from the rubber. Legal

Nothing illegal about his move. He faked to an occupied base (legal) and then threw to a base in an attempt to retire a runner attempting to advance (legal). In fact, once the disengagement from the rubber was made on the fake pick-off, anything after that is legal anyway (even a fake throw to an unoccupied base) because he's an infielder the moment he disengages.

[Mrumpiresir]

I agree with Yawetag, this is not a Balk. The pitcher can step toward second base and does not need to throw. Once he comes off the rubber, there are no restrictions and he can throw to third to retire the advancing runner.

[BSUmp16]

Iitbtsb

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by clevbrown

I think the pitcher cannot step toward 2nd, then throw to 3rd.

You are correct about this principle, but it doesn't apply to your case. The key is to understand when he ceases to be a pitcher: the pitcher stepped toward 2B and feinted there, which is legal.

Once disengaged, he is no longer a pitcher, and the restrictions on pitchers no longer apply. He is technically an infielder and may do whatever (otherwise legal action) he wishes.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by clevbrown

I think the pitcher cannot step toward 2nd, then throw to 3rd.

If he steps toward second and throws across his body to third all in one motion (just like a "normal" throw to third except the foot is to second -- or like you're faking out the dog when having him chase the ball in the backyard), then it's a balk.

But, that's not what he did in the OP. He faked to second and THEN threw to third. The tiem between the fake and the throw can be >veryshort<

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by clevbrown

Not sure what you mean Rich. I agree 3rd base is not occupied. My feeling is the pitcher must step towards the base he is throwing to regardless if it is occupied or not. I think the pitcher cannot step toward 2nd, then throw to 3rd.

Ask yourself ... if he hadn't thrown to third, would you have a balk for the feint toward 2nd? (I'm hoping your answer is no.)
Now ask yourself - are there any restrictions regarding throwing the ball once the pitcher has legally disengaged? (Again, hoping the answer is no)

So now what do you have?