Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)
I believe clevbrown's fundamental misunderstanding is that he does not understand that, in this play, 2B is considered an "occupied base" because that was the base R2 was entitled to when F1 engaged the rubber.
Even though R2 had "taken off" to 3B at the time of F1's feint to 2B, for purposes of the rule, 2B is still considered an "occupied base".
JM
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Actually, I understand which base is occupied. My problem is I did not understand that a pitcher can step toward a base with his non pivot foot and still be considered stepping off the rubber. I thought the pitcher had to disengage from the rubber with his pivot foot and step behind the rubber.
What I have learned from everyone on this page is once a pitcher steps towards an occupied base and removes his pivot foot from the rubber, he is now a fielder and can throw anywhere he wants. Thanks to everyone for helping me understand this.
One follow up question...
Runner on 2nd, pitcher in the stretch, runner breaks for 3rd, can the pitcher step toward 3rd and throw to third since he is "attempting to put out a runner"? Per the rules, it appears the answer is yes he can. However, I hear a lot of people say he cannot.