Simple Balk Question

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by mrm21711

Runners on 1st & 2nd. Pitcher takes sign, comes set. Pitcher steps (i.e. makes a legal feint) and throws to SS who is in his "normal" position nowhere near 2B, ect. They call a balk.

They told me the story after the game and my a bunch of red flags kept going up as they were progressing. I told them, "thats not a balk" as the one guy was claiming the throw to SS constituted P throwing to an unoccupied base. I told him thats incorrect and only at 1B does the fielder need to be in the vicinity to make a play on the runner in a pickoff situation.

What they claimed was not even logical. 2nd base was occupied, so to what unoccupied base were they referring? You were perfectly correct in your explanation.

I had a dugout argue the same exact thing last week, and I gave them a similar education about it being legal to throw to F4 or F6 in their normal position, and that the rule only applies to 1st base in that F3 must be close enough to have a possible play on the runner.