Obstruction Call- LA Dodgers game

[UmpJM]

OK....

Maybe I'm seeing this differently from everyone else, but I see this as Type B Obstruction, and, were I the umpire, would have left R3 at 3B rather than awarding home. (Putting the BR on 2B was correct regardless.)

On the initial collision, the runner, ball, and fielder all converged on the same spot and there was a minor "train wreck". U3 gave a "Safe" mechanic, indicating to me, "That's nothing!". That's what I thought. No tag, no obstruction (F5 was "in the act of fielding"), no interference (R3 demonstrated no intent to interfere with the throw).

Then, as the ball skittered over in the direction of F6, F5 obstructed R3. Blatantly. But, at that point in time, no "play" was being made on R3 because the ball was "loose".

And there is no way he would have made it home absent the obstruction.

So, where am I taking the wrong track on this train of thought?

JM