Batter picking up the ball

[GA Umpire]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

okay, so lets take this a step further. R3 takes off and is going to be dead at home...B/R picks up the ball, would we ever have a situation like this (similar to OP) where R3 is out or do we still call B/R out and send R3 back to 3B?

I am going to guess only if the batter hasn't become a runner yet. Then, BI applies for rule 7.09(c) if less than 2 outs. Simply b/c in OBR, the runner has to intentionally INT with the possibility of a DP to be made. In this case, no DP can be made since the batter was walked.

So, I would have INT on BR with him out and R3 goes back to 3B.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by GA Umpire

I am going to guess only if the batter hasn't become a runner yet. Then, BI applies for rule 7.09(c) if less than 2 outs. Simply b/c in OBR, the runner has to intentionally INT with the possibility of a DP to be made. In this case, no DP can be made since the batter was walked.

So, I would have INT on BR with him out and R3 goes back to 3B.

In the OP, there were two outs, remember.

[DG]

I think if you deemed the BR actions prevented the defense from making a play to record an out then call him out. It you deem otherwise, don't.

With less than 2 outs, I would call out the runner closest to home who was advancing.

If runners were not advancing seriously and you deem no play to be made then dead ball as soon as it was touched by BR and tell him don't do that anymore.

I had something similar happen this year, one of the two situations that I questioned my interpretation. In my case on deck batter picked up loose ball on a ball 4. R1 went to 2nd and was not trying to advance to 3rd. Defense wanted an out, I did not agree.

[UmpJM]

I concur with DG and bob jenkins.

The defense actually has to be deprived ("hindered") of an opportunity to get an out. If, at the time the knucklehead picked up the ball there was no such opportunity, there is no out to be had.

Not that you couldn't get away with calling one, as chitownvet did.

JM

[GA Umpire]

There doesn't have to be a play for intentional INT (7.08(b)) to be called. I would agree to not make an out call unless there is the possibility of a play somewhere. Which chi clarified there possibly could have been one at 3B. Saves headaches.

But, with the intentional INT, I believe an umpire is justified to make an out call even if there is no play. This would definitely stop that stupid gesture quickly.

No play = no out.
Play = out on someone.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by GA Umpire

There doesn't have to be a play for intentional INT (7.08(b)) to be called.

There must be SOME kind of play SOMEWHERE, or the defense hasn't been hindered.