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Old Tue May 10, 2005, 10:41am
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With runner on first, batter has 1 strike. Batter attempts to bunt, misses ball (clearly an attempt), the ball hits the batter in the leg. The runner advances to 2nd. Is the correct call, a strike and then a dead ball? Thanks
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Old Tue May 10, 2005, 10:45am
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Dead ball, strike on the batter, return runner to the base occupied at TOP.
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Old Tue May 10, 2005, 10:48am
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Ball is immediately dead when it hits the batter. If he attempted to bunt the ball, that's the same as him swinging at the pitch and it hitting him, it is a strike.

R1, who was stealing, goes back to first.
Well I am certainly wiser than this man. It is only too likely that neither of us has any knowledge to boast of; but he thinks that he knows something which he does not know, whereas I am quite conscious of my ignorance. At any rate it seems that I am wiser than he is to this small extent, that I do not think that I know what I do not know. ~Socrates
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