What is the outcome of this?

[JPaco54]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

Husker,

No, that statement is not correct.

If there were 2 outs at the start of the play, then the appeal of the R1's failure to touch 2B would be a run-nullifying "advantageous apparent 4th out appeal", and no runs would score. Since the R1 was "forced" to 2B at the time of the miss, a proper appeal of his miss is treated as a force out. Since it would be the 3rd out of the half-inning, no runs would score on the play.

JM

So then based on UmpJM scenario if there was 1 out, as OP states, then only 1 run would count and R2 is placed on 3B, BR is on 1B. Due to R1 being "forced out" by appeal.