What is the outcome of this?

[Huskerblue]

2 runs score. Both the runner that was on 2nd and the one that was on 3rd. Your OP said there was only one out. The appeal would not be necessary as they already retired the runner at third base. If there were two outs in this sitch, still two runs would score as the appeal now becomes a time play.

[UmpJM]

Originally Posted by Huskerblue

... If there were two outs in this sitch, still two runs would score as the appeal now becomes a time play.

Husker,

No, that statement is not correct.

If there were 2 outs at the start of the play, then the appeal of the R1's failure to touch 2B would be a run-nullifying "advantageous apparent 4th out appeal", and no runs would score. Since the R1 was "forced" to 2B at the time of the miss, a proper appeal of his miss is treated as a force out. Since it would be the 3rd out of the half-inning, no runs would score on the play.

JM

[JPaco54]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

Husker,

No, that statement is not correct.

If there were 2 outs at the start of the play, then the appeal of the R1's failure to touch 2B would be a run-nullifying "advantageous apparent 4th out appeal", and no runs would score. Since the R1 was "forced" to 2B at the time of the miss, a proper appeal of his miss is treated as a force out. Since it would be the 3rd out of the half-inning, no runs would score on the play.

JM

So then based on UmpJM scenario if there was 1 out, as OP states, then only 1 run would count and R2 is placed on 3B, BR is on 1B. Due to R1 being "forced out" by appeal.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by JPaco54

So then based on UmpJM scenario if there was 1 out, as OP states, then only 1 run would count and R2 is placed on 3B, BR is on 1B. Due to R1 being "forced out" by appeal.

Why would R2 be placed back at third (and BR back at first, if he had advanced farther)?

R1 is out on the appeal, but the other runners keep the bases to which they had advanced.

[JPaco54]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Why would R2 be placed back at third (and BR back at first, if he had advanced farther)?

R1 is out on the appeal, but the other runners keep the bases to which they had advanced.

Bob - I am confused now as to what the proper call would be with the one out scenario. Is this a timing situation? Back to the OP, If appeal made, R1 is out for the second out for missing 2B. R3 scores and R2 scores. BR if advanced to second on the throw to third would maintain 2B. Correct?

But if 2 outs, it becomes a "force" situation and no runs score? Appreciate clarification. Thanks!

[johnnyg08]

R1 has already "touched" 2B, so my understanding would be that it's not a force out.

[JPaco54]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

R1 has already "touched" 2B, so my understanding would be that it's not a force out.

Defense appealed, after R1 thrown out at 3B, that R1 MISSED 2B and therefore was ruled out by appeal.

[cc6]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

Husker,

No, that statement is not correct.

If there were 2 outs at the start of the play, then the appeal of the R1's failure to touch 2B would be a run-nullifying "advantageous apparent 4th out appeal", and no runs would score. Since the R1 was "forced" to 2B at the time of the miss, a proper appeal of his miss is treated as a force out. Since it would be the 3rd out of the half-inning, no runs would score on the play.

JM

Correct. These are the helpful posts from JM I like to see.

[bossman72]

Let's change the OP and say the BR was tagged out instead of R1, then the D appeals R1's miss of 2nd base.

Now we have 3 outs with no runs scoring, correct?

[UmpJM]

bossman,

That's correct.

As long as the out on the play and the subsequent appeal out are on two different runners, both outs stand.

Since, in the OP the R1 was forced to 2B at the time of the miss, his out is a run-nullifying 3rd out of the half-inning.

JM

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by bossman72

Let's change the OP and say the BR was tagged out instead of R1, then the D appeals R1's miss of 2nd base.

Now we have 3 outs with no runs scoring, correct?

Does the BR being tagged remove the force on R1? Does it matter whether the BR tagged out before or after he reaches first? Does it matter whether R1 was forced at the time of the pitch or the time he missed second?