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Good Question, Complicated Answer
Quote:
BRD 359, pg 223; FED: the pitcher must step ... when throwing or "legally" feinting. BRD 362, pg 225; FED: to 3B, may do that "with or without disengaging" ... BRD 359, pg 223; NCAA: the pitcher must step before he throws, but the step is not required for a "legal" feint. BRD 362, pg 225; NCAA: to 3B must disengage the PP during the feint before he will be allowed to throw (or feint) to 1B. Now if he steps off the back of the rubber first, then this same move is a legal move to 3B. F1 must seperate his hands when stepping to 3B and before turning to throw to 1B, a "legal" feint. Now I have to ask those salivating ummps out there, if F1 did not seperate his hands, where's the feint? Interesting discussion: http://www.baseball-excellence.com/s...m=2&Topic=7992 Ever try to throw a baseball w/your hands togther? A "legal" feint is an attempt to legally deceive the runner into thinking F1 will throw towards the base. What's missing from this argument? Arm motion. How does one throw or feint a throw w/out any arm motion? Pitching, by position, is all about arm motion. How about a feint of a throw? Same requirement, arm motion to seperate his hands and no requirement to complete the release.
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SAump ![]() Last edited by SAump; Sun May 18, 2008 at 10:49pm. |
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