Appeal questions

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Illini_Ref

a fielder HAS to tag a runner who missed a base IF the runner is attempting to get back to the base. However, this is not the case on a force play as the fielder only needs to touch the base with the ball.

My question is: Is the BR to first a force play? I don't think it is. By NF definition it is not. However, in one of their cases (not dealing with a missed first base) they refer to the BR to first as a "force out".

Which is it?

BR is not forced to 1B, since by definition a force play is on a runner who is forced to advance by the batter becoming a runner (this definition is the same in all codes).

BR to 1B has some similarities to a force play, and is sometimes treated as if it were. Call it a "quasi-force play" if you like. If you have the specific case play that's confusing you, we could try explaining that ruling.