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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Apr 13, 2008, 11:56pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Welpe
However BR hasn't legally acquired 2B since R2 is already occupying it. If you protect BR to 2B, he hasn't aquired it so he would be awarded 2B, wouldn't he?
Good thought, though in this case it wouldn't apply.

With Type B Obstruction we have the luxury of being able to use all the information available for the entire play as the basis to determine what award, if any, will be made.

While we may have initially protected the batter-runner to 2b on the Obstruction that can change as the play develops. In this case R2 failed to advance, resulting in the batter-runner being tagged out. Absent the obstruction would the result have been different?
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Old Mon Apr 14, 2008, 05:03am
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socal,

Makes sense what you say. After all, why should the offense get an "award" for foolish baserunning?

But let me ask this question:

Say, BR did NOT go to 2B, and he went back to 1B. NOW what?

Do we not award him 2B (if in our judgement he would have made 2B absent the obstruction), and thereby give R2 3B?
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Old Mon Apr 14, 2008, 06:28am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Shmuelg
socal,

Makes sense what you say. After all, why should the offense get an "award" for foolish baserunning?

But let me ask this question:

Say, BR did NOT go to 2B, and he went back to 1B. NOW what?

Do we not award him 2B (if in our judgement he would have made 2B absent the obstruction), and thereby give R2 3B?
Not in OBR, where the award aims to nullify the act of obstruction. Without OBS, BR would have ended up on 1B. If that's where he is now, then we're good.
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Old Mon Apr 14, 2008, 10:36am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by socalblue1
Good thought, though in this case it wouldn't apply.

With Type B Obstruction we have the luxury of being able to use all the information available for the entire play as the basis to determine what award, if any, will be made.

While we may have initially protected the batter-runner to 2b on the Obstruction that can change as the play develops. In this case R2 failed to advance, resulting in the batter-runner being tagged out. Absent the obstruction would the result have been different?
I can agree with this. My thought was more surrounding the idea of if the umpire decided to protect the BR to 2B. I think in this sitch, protecting to 1B is the proper decision.
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Old Mon Apr 14, 2008, 11:11am
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I too stand corrected.

Nullifying the act of OBS... we still have R2 standing on 2nd. So BR would have to have been on first. Protecting him back to first nullifies the OBS. I see the light.

Of course in FED we have a whole different story.
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Old Mon Apr 14, 2008, 03:19pm
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With all the BS going on around here this thread should stand as an example of posting a question, a discussion and a learning experience for all...
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