INT after ball 4

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by mbyron

Bruno, in order to call BR out for batter interference, he must have interfered. How can he interfere if there's no possible play on R1?

Hmm... what if the "interferecne" causes the throw to go into center field and R1 advances to third?

[DG]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Hmm... what if the "interferecne" causes the throw to go into center field and R1 advances to third?

Hmm.. normally with a stealer we let play go on and if the throw does not retire the runner the ball is dead immediately, such as when the SS cuts it off with a runner on 3B. So in this case I think the ball is dead at the moment of the interference, since the runner can't be retired due to the walk. R1 should be returned to 2B.

[fitump56]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Hmm... what if the "interferecne" causes the throw to go into center field and R1 advances to third?

Originally Posted by DG

Hmm.. normally with a stealer we let play go on and if the throw does not retire the runner the ball is dead immediately, such as when the SS cuts it off with a runner on 3B. So in this case I think the ball is dead at the moment of the interference, since the runner can't be retired due to the walk. R1 should be returned to 2B.

Then you have rewarded O for INT (no potential for a putout on R advancement to 3B) and penalized the D for their effort. Does this make sense?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Hmm... what if the "interference" causes the throw to go into center field and R1 advances to third?

Then call it, naturally, BUT as you know you're dealing with a BR now, not a batter, and the interference must be intentional - a rather higher standard than for BI.