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INT after ball 4
sit :
R1, 0 outs, 3-1 count. the batter leans over the outside part over the plate but does not swing. the catcher immediatly tries to throw to 2nd cause the runner was stealing. the umpire calls balls the pitch ball 4 and the batter interfereces with the throwing catcher. whats the proper ruling ? |
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the question is :
can BR interfere on a throw to 2nd, where R1 is force to go to ? or is this just "nothing" ? |
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Tim. |
any time calls ?.... like weak interference, BR -> 1st, R1 -> 2nd ?
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Placement of Runners Not Out: If a Batter-Runner is not out when interference has occurred, he is awarded first base, unless his batted ball is foul or caught over foul territory. If a Batter-Runner has not yet touched or passed first base at the time of interference, all runners not out must return to their TOP base, with the following exceptions: (1) If the Batter-Runner is awarded to first base, a sequential runner is forced to be awarded his advance base. Tim. |
Bruno, in order to call BR out for batter interference, he must have interfered. How can he interfere if there's no possible play on R1?
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Hmm... what if the "interferecne" causes the throw to go into center field and R1 advances to third? |
Bruno,
In this case, the batter has become a batter runner, and he can only interfere with a thrown ball if he does so intentionally, and furthermore is "disregarding his try to get to 1st base" (from J/R). Perhaps intentional interference could occur if the batter doesn't realize it is ball four, and tries to help R1. Even then, the interference would need to be against a throw which was intended to retire R1 after he has overrun 2nd base, and has again become liable to be put out. I doubt you would ever see this sequence and timing of events in a real game. |
mr Reed has it--must be intentional at this point.....or no interfereance!
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What if the defense claims that it was their intent to make a play on R1 because it was their opinion the batter "went" on that pitch (checked swing) and they were anticipating the ball call being reversed to a strike, thus putting the runner in jeopardy? But first, they wanted to make a play on the runner, since time was of the essence. In OBR, it explicitly says that runners need to be aware of such a reversal of calls which would put the runner in jeopardy. I'm just throwing crap out there. I don't think I would call interference on this either. I just like to think if there is anything that could complicate the situation. David Emerling Memphis, TN |
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If after "Ball 4", then no B INT. Hell if I can tell by the OP. :D |
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I'm just making stuff up, now. :) David Emerling Memphis, TN |
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