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Old Sun Apr 29, 2007, 01:21am
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My question is that although they ultimately they got the call right, does the fact that they did it 3 innings after they should have make it protestable. I would think that Baltimore would have protested immediately after the original misinterp. It looked like Cleveland only protested after the call was reversed. I don't know of any ruling that would suggest that you can't go back and correct the score, but I'm certainly not an MLB ump.
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