balk using mlb rules

[yankeesfan]

is this the same in fed rules also?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by yankeesfan

is this the same in fed rules also?

Yes, all rule codes permit throwing to a base that is unoccupied at TOP for the purpose of making a play.

[thumpferee]

I'm just curious, did the pitcher turn and throw without stepping, or did he step toward second on the throw?

[bossman72]

Yankeesfan- just think about it. If this rule wasn't in place, the pitcher could not technically throw out a runner stealing. Also, runners would be fake stealing all the time to get pitchers to throw to 2nd and subsequently balk if the clause "for the purpose of making a play" wasn't in there.

Don't worry- this is a common myth. I had a coach tell me the same thing you thought and he was adimate it was a balk... sorry coach. haha

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by bossman72

Yankeesfan- just think about it. If this rule wasn't in place, the pitcher could not technically throw out a runner stealing.

Sure he could: F1 could step off before throwing to 2B (although then for purposes of the balk rule he is not "pitcher" but just an "infielder"). Many people seem to think that if the pitcher does anything other than come to the plate then he must step off. Many people do not know the balk rule.

[bossman72]

Originally Posted by mbyron

Sure he could: F1 could step off before throwing to 2B (although then for purposes of the balk rule he is not "pitcher" but just an "infielder"). Many people seem to think that if the pitcher does anything other than come to the plate then he must step off. Many people do not know the balk rule.

Yes- exactly.