Do you count the run?

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by UMP25

I think I intentionally confused many of them by reminding them that advances by runners due to balks or wild pitches when an improper batter is at bat do count. Not that this means the run counts. Just throwing that out there to further confuse the masses.

That is because R3 scored because he was awarded home on ball four in this case, and not as the result of a wild pitch or a balk. The fact that ball four was also a wild pitch does not mean R3's run counts for this very reason. On proper appeal, R3's run is negated.

[UmpJM]

S.D. Steve,

I believe that in UMP25's sitch, the R3 is the only baserunner. Therefore, there is no award to the R3 on the ball 4 (wild) pitch to the batter.

JM

[SanDiegoSteve]

Man, I'm not reading well lately.

[BoomerSooner]

Wouldn't the key to this situation be that, in this case, the batter's time at bat ends upon become a runner or more properly a batter-runner and therefore anything that occurs after this point can be negated by batting out of order.

[BigUmp56]

Originally Posted by PWL

I do remember a FED case play with runner at third and two out stating that the activity of the improper batter did not assist or advance the base runner. I believe this was for a steal of home. It also stated something about if it was the third strike if catcher either caught the ball or threw out the improper batter at first the run would not count.

So with a base on balls, wouldn't this be the same thing.

Runs scores. Improper batter out on proper appeal.

Also FED has any runner advancing on a balk, wild pitch, passed ball, or steal while the improper batter is at bat is legal.

Should be the same in OBR.

The only way the run would score on an advance unrelated to the improper batters advance to first would be with less than two outs. This play has two outs and no run can score if the third out is made before the batter obtains first base. No run scores on this play.


Tim.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by BigUmp56

The only way the run would score on an advance unrelated to the improper batters advance to first would be with less than two outs. This play has two outs and no run can score if the third out is made before the batter obtains first base. No run scores on this play.


Tim.

I still say the run counts, and that PWL is correct. The third out was certainly not made before the batter had obtained first base. Where do you get that? The improper batter was called out on appeal. That is after he had obtained first base, legally or illegally. J/R says that if the run scored on the wild pitch during the improper batter's at bat, then the run counts.

[BigUmp56]

Steve:

He legally completed his time at bat as soon as he took ball four, so the advance was not during his time at bat. And, as the third out was an appeal his illegal touch of first base is the third out of the inning. Again, no run can score if the third out is made before the batter-runner legally touched first base.

Tim.

[bossman72]

FED says no run on the BOO

Check out case book 7.2.1 C

[umpduck11]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

I still say the run counts, and that PWL is correct.

Oh my.....SDS agrees with PWL. Isn't that one of the
signs of the apocalypse ?????