Batter Interference????

[PWL]

Originally posted by BigUmp56
Lets go back and re-visit the original play.

Runner on third base. Count is 3-0 to the batter. Ball 4 is issued to the batter. Umpire calls ball 4 and the batter throws his bat to the dugout while standing in the batters box. In the process of doing that the catcher pops up and throws the ball down to 3rd base to try to pick off the runner. Right after the catcher throws the ball, the ball hits the bat in mid air and the ball falls to the ground a few feet from the catcher. The batter runs to first and the runner on third comes home to score.


The play say's the batter threw his bat toward the dugout. It doesn't say he threw it at or near the catcher. It doesn't say he threw the bat at the ball. In fact it says he threw the bat before the throw was released. Unless you see him pause and intentionally aim the bat in an attempt to interfere then calling interference is the wrong thing to do. There's no such thing as accidentally on purpose, and that's what your suggesting.

Tim.

This is what I'm talking about. At no time does said poster mention base runner threw bat or helmet.

Now, I understand the original play and what is being talked about. Does the ruling mention a batter? No. That's why I'm asking. Does the PBUC reference this particular play for the 4:18 ruling if base runner and batter are meant to be one and the same? That I would make more sense. FED casebook is somewhat more clear on situation and its ruling.

BTW-A batter doesn't become a base runner when he completes his time at bat. Ever heard of the put out or the KO. Nice try Slingblade. I bet you like them french fried taters, um, um.