Is this runner interference?

[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by BPorter


Thanks for the reply. Can you explain to me why I am wrong? I agree that no infielder had a reasonable chance on the ball. I am basing my argument on 8.4.2k that states no other infielder has a chance at the ball.

Under FED rules, the runner is not out. FED makes no mention of the 3-5 ft. from fielder that J/R uses.

FED Case Book Play 8.4.2 Sitch H

R1 is advancing to second when the ball batted by B2 (a) is dropped by F4 and is deflected toward R1 or (b) passes several feet to the left of F4 who is playing in front of the baseline. In either case, the ball then touches R1.

Ruling In (a) the touching is ignored because the ball touched a defensive player first. In (b), touching is ignored unless R1 purposely allows the ball to touch him, or in the opinion of the umpire, another player who was in an infielder's position when the pitch was made had a play on the ball.

Therefore, in FED, if in the judgement of the umpire no other player had a chance on the ball, the touching is ignored. IMO FED is much simpler and makes way more sense than the OBR interpretation.

Using the example GEE gave on the ultimate of ultimate shifts using OBR - you are granting the defense a "freebie" and an out which they did not earn. under FED rules - we play on.

Pete Booth