[BPorter]

G,

Thanks for the reply. Can you explain to me why I am wrong? I agree that no infielder had a reasonable chance on the ball. I am basing my argument on 8.4.2k that states no other infielder has a chance at the ball.

Would it not be the same as an umpire being hit on the line after it passes the infielders, regardless of a reasonable chance?

Please let me know what you think.

Thanks.