Quote:
Originally posted by BPorter
G,
Thanks for the reply. Can you explain to me why I am wrong? I agree that no infielder had a reasonable chance on the ball. I am basing my argument on 8.4.2k that states no other infielder has a chance at the ball.
Would it not be the same as an umpire being hit on the line after it passes the infielders, regardless of a reasonable chance?
Please let me know what you think.
Thanks.
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OK, BP.
I realize it is a tough thing to change your thinking on but the right call is OUT.
Here is where your problem is. The FED rule says:
"The runner is out when contacted by a fair ball before it touches an infielder, or after it PASSESany infielder, except the pitcher and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play".
The runner is out "AFTER IT HAS PASSED AN INFIELDER"
In your play the ball "HASN'T PASSED A FIELDER". According to Jim Evans and other acknowledged authoritative opinion. The ball must go by an infielder by less that 5 feet in order to have PASSED him. That did not happen in your play.
The ball went by the infielder by more than five feet as you stated. Therefore, the defense did not have a REASONABLE CHANCE to field the ball before it hit the runner. The runner is out for INTERFERED.
It will take time for this to sink in, work on it. G.