Is this runner interference?

[BPorter]

Now I am confused. What I have read implies that if the infielders do not have a reasonable chance to catch the ball, for example a ball hit in the hole, and it hits the runner, then the runner is out, because the first player to have a reasonable chance at the ball is the outfielder.

It seems to contradict the Rules 5.1.f1, 5.1.f2 and 8.4.2k.

In particular 8.4.2k states that "The runner is out when contacted by a fair ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any infielder, except the pitcher and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play".

I would stand by my call of letting play continue, even though the ball passed more than 5 feet from the 3rd baseman and shortstop.