Foul or Fair Ball?

[Fargol]

Batter hits a grounder towards first. It hits at least once in fair territory, but before reaching the base, kicks towards foul territory. Before it hits the ground in foul territory, but clearly over foul territory, the 1st baseman grabs it.

Fair or foul? I say foul.

Thanks.

[Matt]

Originally Posted by Fargol

Batter hits a grounder towards first. It hits at least once in fair territory, but before reaching the base, kicks towards foul territory. Before it hits the ground in foul territory, but clearly over foul territory, the 1st baseman grabs it.

Fair or foul? I say foul.

Thanks.

Correct. It was a ground ball that was on or over foul territory before passing a base when first touched.

[Fargol]

Originally Posted by Matt

Correct. It was a ground ball that was on or over foul territory before passing a base when first touched.

Thanks, that's how I interpret the rule as well.

Seems I'm the only one in my group who thought so

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Fargol

Thanks, that's how I interpret the rule as well.

Seems I'm the only one in my group who thought so

Walk them through the definition one step at a time.

[Fargol]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

Walk them through the definition one step at a time.

LOL I tried that. Posted multiple rules sources.

They maintain that it had to hit the ground in foul territory to be ruled foul. I suspect I was being screwed with, perhaps ...

[illinoisbluezeb]

Fargol let's add more to the same play.

Batter hits a grounder towards first. It hits at least once in fair territory, but before reaching the base, kicks towards foul territory. Before it hits the ground in foul territory, but clearly over foul territory, the 1st baseman grabs it with both feet touching completely in fair territory.

Fair or foul?



Sent from my SM-N900V using Tapatalk

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by illinoisbluezeb

Fargol let's add more to the same play.

Batter hits a grounder towards first. It hits at least once in fair territory, but before reaching the base, kicks towards foul territory. Before it hits the ground in foul territory, but clearly over foul territory, the 1st baseman grabs it with both feet touching completely in fair territory.

Fair or foul?



Sent from my SM-N900V using Tapatalk

As i read it, Fargol knows the rule (and knows your play is foul). IT's others in his group who need convincing. And, since the OP didn't say where F3 was, your play doesn't really add anything.

[john5396]

Fargol,

I think your play description is ambiguous and the play could be fair or foul. Key missing element is did F3 grab the ball before the ball reaches first base or after the ball passes the front edge of the base.

If the ball has not passed 1st, then you are correct, the ball is foul based on where the ball is touched.

In the case of a bouncing ball which passes 1st base, the call now becomes the position of the ball when it passed the bag, not where it is touched by F3. So a ball that bounces in fair territory, passes over the bag and is then touched by F3 in foul territory before the ball bounces in foul territory is a fair ball.

Maybe you and your compatriots were picturing different plays.