OBS effect

[CecilOne]

R1 on 2nd. B2/R2 obstructed between 1st & 2nd, then tagged out at 2nd.
Dead ball, award R2 1st or 2nd as judged if non-OBS.

Tag occurred with R1 between 3rd & home.
ASA says award bases to all runners, NFHS says affected runners.
Could R1 be awarded home
if ITUJ, R1 would have been reached w/o the dead ball at 2nd?
ASA answer:
NFHS answer:
Does the ASA rule really mean only "affected", i.e. trailing runners? If so, citation please.

Another variation will follow later.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

R1 on 2nd. B2/R2 obstructed between 1st & 2nd, then tagged out at 2nd.
Dead ball, award R2 1st or 2nd as judged if non-OBS.

Tag occurred with R1 between 3rd & home.
ASA says award bases to all runners, NFHS says affected runners.
Could R1 be awarded home
if ITUJ, R1 would have been reached w/o the dead ball at 2nd?
ASA answer:
NFHS answer:
Does the ASA rule really mean only "affected", i.e. trailing runners? If so, citation please.

Another variation will follow later.

Either ruleset. She was affected because she was between bases when the ball was called dead. Give her the base she would have reached.

[BretMan]

That's what I'm thinking. If you judge that the lead runner would have scored, then she was "affected" in that her advance was stopped when the ball become dead due to a rule violation by the defense.

If you judge that she wouldn't have scored, then put her back on third. I would tend to give every benefit of the doubt to the runner here.

[Sapper33]

Depends on which base you protect her to. PG 65 Penalty: (3b), a. says "If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there been no obstruction, a dead ball is called..." If you don't think she would have reached 2B, then I feel it's a delayed call until all playing action is completed. You would then put runner back at 1B. If you judge 2B to be the correct placement of the runner, then you would be correct.

[DaveASA/FED]

Originally Posted by Sapper33

Depends on which base you protect her to. PG 65 Penalty: (3b), a. says "If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there been no obstruction, a dead ball is called..." If you don't think she would have reached 2B, then I feel it's a delayed call until all playing action is completed. You would then put runner back at 1B. If you judge 2B to be the correct placement of the runner, then you would be correct.

The standard obstruction mechanic is anytime an obstructed is put out prior to reaching the base they would have reached, or between the two bases where they were obstructed then you call a dead ball and award the obstructed runner and all other runners affected by the obstruction the base(s) they would have reached had there been no obstruction. So reguardless of 1B or 2B award in your case you kill it when the runner is put out, and award the base(s) to the runners in your judgement they would have reached.

So in the original question I agree you have to judge where R1 would have been if you wouldn't have had to call a dead ball due to the obstruction and then you award them that base, in both codes.

[IRISHMAFIA]

I disagree. I don't believe the runner was affected by the OBS. The runner was affected by the OBS runner being retired. Being OBS is not always the cause of that runner being put out.