Quote:
Originally Posted by Sapper33
Depends on which base you protect her to. PG 65 Penalty: (3b), a. says "If the obstructed runner is put out prior to reaching the base that would have been reached had there been no obstruction, a dead ball is called..." If you don't think she would have reached 2B, then I feel it's a delayed call until all playing action is completed. You would then put runner back at 1B. If you judge 2B to be the correct placement of the runner, then you would be correct.
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The standard obstruction mechanic is anytime an obstructed is put out prior to reaching the base they would have reached, or between the two bases where they were obstructed then you call a dead ball and award the obstructed runner and all other runners affected by the obstruction the base(s) they would have reached had there been no obstruction. So reguardless of 1B or 2B award in your case you kill it when the runner is put out, and award the base(s) to the runners in your judgement they would have reached.
So in the original question I agree you have to judge where R1 would have been if you wouldn't have had to call a dead ball due to the obstruction and then you award them that base, in both codes.