Interference w/o a Possible Play

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

How about an example.

Runner on third. Batter hits into a routine grounder and is thrown out at first, runner crosses the plate. F3 overthrows the pitcher and it rolls to the 3rd base coach, who picks up the ball and throws it back to the pitcher.

3BC just handled a live ball, right? Ball is dead now (if someone wanted to appeal R1 missing home, for example, in a ruleset that doesn't accept dead-ball appeals, it would need to be made live before that appeal would be allive). Are you calling someone out? Of course not.

Other scenario. Runners on 1st and 3rd; Batter hits into a routine grounder and is thrown out at first. Runner from 3rd crosses the plate, Runner from 1st to 2nd, and is standing on 2nd, doing nothing. F3 overthrows the pitcher and it rolls to the 3rd base coach, who picks up the ball and throws it back to the pitcher.

3BC just handled a live ball, right? Are you calling someone out? I surely hope not. Even though there's a baserunner, there's no PLAY. The fact that the basecoach handled a live ball does not mean he committed interference. Is the ball dead now? Yes. Interference? No.

No problem whatsoever with your examples. Now, give me the rule that justifies these calls.

And here's one more example for you. Runner at first. Pitcher delivers one in the dirt that hits the catcher in the chest protector. The ball ends up in front of the batter. Runner doesn't try to advance. Batter has a brain cramp, and picks up the ball to hand to the catcher. Dead ball? Yes. But if it's not interference since there was no possibility of a play on the runner, what rule justifies the dead ball call?