odd rule questions

[CecilOne]

1) Does any rule set have umpire interference anywhere besides interfering with a catcher's throw?

2) Does any rule set have a possibility of umpire obstruction?

[Manny A]

Almost all rule sets that I'm aware of also consider it umpire interference when he/she is hit with a batted ball before it passes an infielder other than the pitcher. For some reason, I don't think FED rules call that umpire interference, but the effect is the same.

[Andy]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

1) Does any rule set have umpire interference anywhere besides interfering with a catcher's throw?

Base Umpire hit by a batted ball....ASA 8-1-E, NFHS 8-4-1f

Originally Posted by CecilOne

2) Does any rule set have a possibility of umpire obstruction?

Assuming you are referring to an umpire impeding or hindering a baserunner, I am not aware of any ruleset that addresses this.

[CecilOne]

OK, I knew that. I was referring to interference with a fielder.

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

1) Does any rule set have umpire interference anywhere besides interfering with a catcher's throw?

2) Does any rule set have a possibility of umpire obstruction?

None that I know of for either question (aside for the elaboration of umpire interference already stated in this thread).

Umpire obstruction does not exist.

[AtlUmpSteve]

For the purpose of both questions:

With the sole stated exceptions already elaborated, the umpires are part of the field. Period. Consider yourself and your partners the biggest pebbles or clods of dirt on the field that could possibly affect the ball or a player; and treat the result exactly the same.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

Consider yourself and your partners the biggest pebbles or clods of dirt on the field...

That's pretty much in line with what fans have considered me, and sometimes worse...

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

OK, I knew that. I was referring to interference with a fielder.

Not too long ago, a MLB umpire (might've been Richie Garcia) called umpire interference on himself while he was U2. He was inside the diamond with a runner at first. On a steal attempt, he positioned himself too close to the throwing path and got hit by the ball on the foot. He called time and sent the runner back to first.

Only time I've ever seen that happen. He obviously took the premise of an umpire interfering with the catcher's attempt to retire a stealing runner a little too far. And nobody complained!

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Not too long ago, a MLB umpire (might've been Richie Garcia) called umpire interference on himself while he was U2. He was inside the diamond with a runner at first. On a steal attempt, he positioned himself too close to the throwing path and got hit by the ball on the foot. He called time and sent the runner back to first.

Only time I've ever seen that happen. He obviously took the premise of an umpire interfering with the catcher's attempt to retire a stealing runner a little too far. And nobody complained!

Can't be that recent since he was one of the umpires that resigned in 1999 and was not hired back as an umpire.

But really, hit in the FOOT with the throw? He really lost his touch over the years.

[SNIPERBBB]

Ball lodging in equipment is pretty close...
NFHS 8-4-3
l. a ball gets lodged in (a) umpire's gear or clothing or (b) in an offensive player's clothing.

PENALTY: (Arts. 3k, 3l)The ball is dead and the umpire should award the runners the bases in the umpire's judgment they would have reached.


Batted ball before it passes a fielder,other than a pitcher:
8-1-2

ART. 2 . . . A batter is awarded first base when:

a. a fair batted ball strikes the person, attached equipment, or clothing of an umpire or a runner.

EFFECTS:
.
.
.
4. If the fair batted ball hits an umpire before passing a fielder other than the pitcher, the ball is dead and the batter-runner is entitled to first base without liability to be put out.
.
.

PENALTIES: (Art. 2).

1. The ball is dead. The batter is entitled to one base without liability to be put out.

[CecilOne]

This happened:
R1 on 2nd. Ground ball headed for left field, R1 heads for 3rd, BU cuts behind her toward infield. F6 makes an amazing play on ball, jumps up and chases R1 back toward 2nd. BU still cutting in and after 1 or 2 steps, R1 runs into BU. F6 tags R1 at collision point, 10 – 15 feet from 2nd. BU calls dead ball, confers with PU.

They decide it was an umpire mistake, misjudging the play and R1’s speed; causing jeopardy for R1, who might have made it back to 2nd. DC disagrees, but BU rules “part of field” applies to ball, not players. Based on jeopardy from umpire mistake, BU places R1 on 2nd, BR on 1st.

Maybe lots of questions here, including whether jeopardy requires a changed ruling.

What are your opinions?

[RKBUmp]

Rule book is pretty explicit, only 2 times there can be umpire interference, one with the plate umpire making contact with the catcher while they are attempting to throw and the other when an umpire is hit by a batted ball prior to it passing an infielder. Neither happened in this situation. Dumb mistake by the umpire, runner is out. Take your butt chewing from the offensive coach and learn a lesson to stay out of the play.

[Steve M]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

Rule book is pretty explicit, only 2 times there can be umpire interference, one with the plate umpire making contact with the catcher while they are attempting to throw and the other when an umpire is hit by a batted ball prior to it passing an infielder. Neither happened in this situation. Dumb mistake by the umpire, runner is out. Take your butt chewing from the offensive coach and learn a lesson to stay out of the play.

Agreed.

[BretMan]

The rule book says that umpires can fix a situation where a team is put in jeopardy due to a delayed or reversed call, not due to "an umpire mistake". What call was delayed or reversed on this play?

[AtlUmpSteve]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

This happened:
R1 on 2nd. Ground ball headed for left field, R1 heads for 3rd, BU cuts behind her toward infield. F6 makes an amazing play on ball, jumps up and chases R1 back toward 2nd. BU still cutting in and after 1 or 2 steps, R1 runs into BU. F6 tags R1 at collision point, 10 – 15 feet from 2nd. BU calls dead ball, confers with PU.

They decide it was an umpire mistake, misjudging the play and R1’s speed; causing jeopardy for R1, who might have made it back to 2nd. DC disagrees, but BU rules “part of field” applies to ball, not players. Based on jeopardy from umpire mistake, BU places R1 on 2nd, BR on 1st.

Maybe lots of questions here, including whether jeopardy requires a changed ruling.

What are your opinions?

"I protest" the misapplications of the rules. Umpire interference misapplied, "part of field" misapplied, ruling of jeopardy misapplied.

Not even a good rec ball solution trying to make everyone happy, let alone one supported by any rule.