odd rule questions

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Not too long ago, a MLB umpire (might've been Richie Garcia) called umpire interference on himself while he was U2. He was inside the diamond with a runner at first. On a steal attempt, he positioned himself too close to the throwing path and got hit by the ball on the foot. He called time and sent the runner back to first.

Only time I've ever seen that happen. He obviously took the premise of an umpire interfering with the catcher's attempt to retire a stealing runner a little too far. And nobody complained!

Can't be that recent since he was one of the umpires that resigned in 1999 and was not hired back as an umpire.

But really, hit in the FOOT with the throw? He really lost his touch over the years.

[SNIPERBBB]

Ball lodging in equipment is pretty close...
NFHS 8-4-3
l. a ball gets lodged in (a) umpire's gear or clothing or (b) in an offensive player's clothing.

PENALTY: (Arts. 3k, 3l)The ball is dead and the umpire should award the runners the bases in the umpire's judgment they would have reached.


Batted ball before it passes a fielder,other than a pitcher:
8-1-2

ART. 2 . . . A batter is awarded first base when:

a. a fair batted ball strikes the person, attached equipment, or clothing of an umpire or a runner.

EFFECTS:
.
.
.
4. If the fair batted ball hits an umpire before passing a fielder other than the pitcher, the ball is dead and the batter-runner is entitled to first base without liability to be put out.
.
.

PENALTIES: (Art. 2).

1. The ball is dead. The batter is entitled to one base without liability to be put out.