Obstruction question

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by youngump

If you're going to take that line of reasoning, then don't you have to hold it the same way when R1 is going to be awarded home? R2 still wasn't affected by the obstruction. Or are you saying that by not letting R1 get home, R2 was affected? If you're saying that, then why can't R2 be affected simply by the run down being longer. Not saying that's this play necessarily (obviously there's not enough in the question to know), but consider that R1 gets knocked down on the way back to third and would have been tagged there. Since she got knocked down she doesn't make it to the tag and scrambles the other way. The run down now continues and R2 and R1 slide into third. The obstruction definitely affected R2 in this play.

You have to take each play on its merits.

In this play, R2 was not affected whatsoever. She ran from first all the way to third base, as all runners do when R1 gets into a rundown between third and home. It doesn't matter if R1's obstruction was a slight bump or a complete knockdown to the ground. In fact, if R1 hadn't been obstructed, R2 would have done nothing different. There is nothing here that says the obstruction of R1 caused R2 to do something out of the ordinary.

Now, suppose R2 ran to third base because R1 was running home, R1 gets tripped by F1 as F1 is moving to back up a throw home, R1 gets up and scrambles back to third, and R2 reacts by heading back to second base, and she gets tagged out sliding headfirst into second. In that case, you could rule that R1 would have scored, and R2 would have safely achieve third, and put R2 there. That would be a case where the obstruction of R1 caused R2 to do something she wouldn't have done had there been no obstruction.