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Old Wed Jul 10, 2013, 06:26am
Stirrer of the Pot
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Lowcountry, SC
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Did enough time lapse between the time when R1 reached second base initially and then got back to the bag? You may not have had enough time to make the initial call. No different than when a runner overslides second base on a straight steal. But if there was a good gap between the two plays, a call on the first play should have been made.

That said, I don't see how your non-call would be a problem. If the teams didn't hear a clear, emphatic OUT! call on the first play, they should have known something was still amiss.
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