Quote:
Originally Posted by topper
Sorry, TWP?
Not a real big fan of either the band or the acronym when it comes to umpiring.
IMO, the ASSUMPTION is made when an umpire declares the dead ball. Say R1 bumps into F6 while a looping line drive is in the air. BU declares dead ball, then F6 catches the ball before BU is able to call INT. What explanation would be given to the DC to justify the INT ruling? Was she prevented from making the play?
|
Interference does not (in any case I'm aware of) require the prevention of making a play. It just requires interference with a play.
__________________
I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'”
West Houston Mike
|
Mon Mar 26, 2012, 12:55pm
Similar Threads
Hybrid Mode
