quick Q regarding R1 passing R2

[MD Longhorn]

No. 8-1 is only half of the ways a batter ends their PA. Read 8-2 as well (this includes the caught fly ball (fair/foul not relevant on a caught fly ball).

On your obviously out of play ball (assuming you don't mean a home run), I think you'd best "decide" that the ball was out of play before the runner was passed. I think you could wiggle your way out of a protest if you ruled the other way, and be technically correct ... but I think we both know that is not the INTENT of that rule.

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

No. 8-1 is only half of the ways a batter ends their PA. Read 8-2 as well (this includes the caught fly ball (fair/foul not relevant on a caught fly ball).

On your obviously out of play ball (assuming you don't mean a home run), I think you'd best "decide" that the ball was out of play before the runner was passed. I think you could wiggle your way out of a protest if you ruled the other way, and be technically correct ... but I think we both know that is not the INTENT of that rule.

""decide" that the ball was out of play "
Predictive umpiring, is that the same as preventive umpiring?

Also, the bolded part is ambiguous to me.

[IRISHMAFIA]

If the batter did not become a batter-runner by putting the ball into play, how do you account for calling a runner out for passing another? It is not possible.

[BretMan]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

If the batter did not become a batter-runner by putting the ball into play, how do you account for calling a runner out for passing another? It is not possible.

How about slow pitch with stealing...and a really, really dumb trailing runner.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

If the batter did not become a batter-runner by putting the ball into play, how do you account for calling a runner out for passing another? It is not possible.

Not sure what I'm missing here or what you really meant. Batter becoming a batter-runner has absolutely nothing to do with whether runners can run or not. Runners can move without the batter becoming BR unless you're in a non-stealing division.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Not sure what I'm missing here or what you really meant. Batter becoming a batter-runner has absolutely nothing to do with whether runners can run or not. Runners can move without the batter becoming BR unless you're in a non-stealing division.

Yeah, maybe I twisted this too far. The point is, TWP aside, that the violation doesn't occur without the batter becoming a BR and you have to account for that action. I really don't care what the scorekeepers do with it, but unless this is the case of a play with an illegal glove or by an unreported substitute, that batter complete the AB. There isn't anything else in the book of which I am aware which allows that batter to hit again until the next time that slot comes around.

[jr131981]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Yeah, maybe I twisted this too far. The point is, TWP aside, that the violation doesn't occur without the batter becoming a BR and you have to account for that action. I really don't care what the scorekeepers do with it, but unless this is the case of a play with an illegal glove or by an unreported substitute, that batter complete the AB. There isn't anything else in the book of which I am aware which allows that batter to hit again until the next time that slot comes around.

whats twp?

and what happens if the batter hits a long fly foul uncaught ball and R2 passes R1 before it becomes a foul ball? or if the batter hits a dribble down the line, R2 passes R1 while the ball is in fair territory, but the ball eventually settles foul?

[BretMan]

TWP= Third World Play (A play that is remotely possible, but not very likely to happen).

If the batted ball becomes foul, runners are not entitled to advance. If they weren't entitled to advance, there can't be a violation involving advancing runners.